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NEW QUESTION # 152
You wish to sell a perpetual preferred share with a par value of $25.00, which pays a quarterly dividend of
$0.25. If other preferred shares of similar quality are currently yielding 3.5%, what price should you expect to receive for your share?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The market value of a perpetual preferred share is calculated by dividing the annual dividend by the yield of similar shares. Annual dividend = $0.25 × 4 = $1.00. Price = $1.00 / 0.035 = $28.57. The feedback from the document states:
"The current market value of a perpetual preferred share is calculated by dividing the annual dividend in dollars by the annual yield currently offered on preferred shares of a similar level of risk. In this case, the share would be valued as: ($0.25 × 4) / 0.035 = $28.57." Reference:Chapter 7 - Types of Investment Products and How They Are TradedLearning Domain:
Understanding Investment Products and Portfolios
NEW QUESTION # 153
Based on your discussions with your client Sierra, you believe an asset allocation of 30% fixed income and
70% equities will help her achieve her long-term goals. What type of asset allocation strategy are you implementing?
Answer: A
Explanation:
A strategic asset allocation strategy is one that involves setting target allocations for various asset classes based on the investor's risk tolerance, time horizon, and investment objectives, and rebalancing the portfolio periodically to maintain the original allocations. This strategy is compatible with a buy-and-hold approach and aims to achieve long-term goals by diversifying across different asset classes and markets. In this case, you are implementing a strategic asset allocation strategy for your client Sierra by assigning 30% of her portfolio to fixed income and 70% to equities, and planning to rebalance her portfolio when the actual allocations deviate significantly from the target allocations.
1: Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 7, Section 7.1
NEW QUESTION # 154
Your client Gerard is 30 years old and plans to retire at age 65. He has a mutual fund portfolio of $40,000 in which he invests $1,500 monthly. Gerard's objective is to use these funds to meet the 20% down payment requirement to buy a house for $650,000.
What is Gerard's investment time horizon not considering market fluctuations?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Gerard's investment time horizon is the length of time he plans to hold his investment until he needs to use the money for his specific goal. In this case, Gerard's goal is to use his mutual fund portfolio to meet the 20% down payment requirement to buy a house for $650,000. Therefore, his investment time horizon is determined by how long it will take him to accumulate enough money in his portfolio to cover the down payment amount.
Assuming that Gerard does not withdraw any money from his portfolio and that his portfolio earns a constant annual rate of return of 6%, we can use the following formula to calculate how long it will take him to reach his goal:
FV=PV×(1+r)n+PMT×r(1+r)n#1
where:
* FV is the future value of the portfolio
* PV is the present value of the portfolio
* r is the annual interest rate
* n is the number of years
* PMT is the monthly payment
We can rearrange the formula to solve for n:
n=log(1+r)logPV+PMT×r1FV#PMT×r1
Plugging in the given values, we get:
n=log(1+0.06)log40,000+1,500×0.061130,000#1,500×0.061
n=4.98
Therefore, Gerard's investment time horizon is approximately 5 years, not considering market fluctuations.
This means that he will need to invest his money in a way that matches his risk tolerance and expected return for this time period.
Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 4: Mutual Funds, Section 4.6: Asset Allocation and Diversification, page 4-271 Future Value of an Annuity Definition - Investopedia2
NEW QUESTION # 155
Saheed is a retiree who is considering splitting his pension income with his wife, Minu.
Which of the following outcomes may occur if he shares his pension benefits?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Whether the couple saves on income tax will be dependent on Minu's marginal tax rate. Pension income splitting is a tax planning strategy that allows a spouse or common-law partner who receives eligible pension income to allocate up to 50% of that income to their spouse or common-law partner1. This may result in tax savings if the transferring spouse or common-law partner is in a higher tax bracket than the receiving spouse or common-law partner1. The tax savings depend on the difference between the marginal tax rates of the spouses or common-law partners1. The other statements are incorrect. Minu will not be exposed to a pension adjustment (PA) if she receives income from Saheed's pension. A PA is a measure of the value of benefits accrued in a registered pension plan or deferred profit sharing plan during a calendar year2. It reduces the RRSP contribution room of the plan member, not the spouse or common-law partner who receives part of their pensionincome2. Pension income splitting is not a form of tax evasion and is not illegal based on income tax legislation. It is a legitimate way to reduce taxable income and taxes payable by shifting income from a higher-income spouse or common-law partner to a lower-income spouse or common-law partner1. Pension income splitting may change the total amount of income taxes paid by the couple, depending on their marginal tax rates. If the transferring spouse or common-law partner is in a higher tax bracket than the receiving spouse or common-law partner, pension income splitting may lower their combined taxes payable1. However, if they are in the same tax bracket, pension incomesplitting may not have any effect on their taxes payable1. References: Pension income splitting, Pension adjustment
NEW QUESTION # 156
Anthony purchased 500 units of XYZ Fund at a price of $12.00 per unit. Near the end of the year, the mutual fund made a distribution of $1.50 per unit. The net asset value per unit (NAVPU) immediately before the distribution was $16.50. Anthony immediately reinvested his distribution at the new NAVPU. How many new units did Anthony purchase when his distribution was reinvested?
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a mutual fund makes a distribution, its net asset value per unit (NAVPU) decreases by the amount of the distribution. Therefore, the new NAVPU of XYZ Fund after the distribution was $$(16.50 - 1.50 = 15.00)
NEW QUESTION # 157
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